Which of the following rep ranges is appropriate for a client training for hypertrophy? 1-3 8-12 12 or more

41. Which of the following rep ranges is appropriate for a client training for hypertrophy? 1-3 8-12 12 or more

  1. 4-6

42. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program?

  1. Trainer
  2. Client
  3. Nutritionist
  4. Physician

43. Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons?

  1. Proteins
  2. Magnesium
  3. Potassium
  4. Fats

44. A weight training program that divides training sessions into upper and lower body training is referred to as which of the following?

  1. Superset training principle
  2. Set-system training principle
  3. Split system training principle
  4. Staggered sets training principle

45. A trainer has a client request their records; how must that request be made?

  1. Over the phone
  2. In a face to face conversation
  3. Only in writing
  4. Asking the trainer’s manager

46. For children between the ages of 5 and 12, what should strength training focus on?

  1. Sport-specific activities
  2. Becoming more flexible
  3. Increasing muscular strength
  4. Learning basic lifting techniques

47. Discussing the nutrient per amount of food is referring to which of the following?

  1. Nutrient density
  2. Caloric density
  3. Phyto-density
  4. Zoo-nutrient density

48. A client has a BMI of 24.8, which of the following categories would they fall into?

  1. Normal
  2. Overweight
  3. Obesity Class 1
  4. Underweight

49. Approximately how many calories are in one pound of body fat?

  1. 2500
  2. 4600
  3. 3500
  4. 5600

50. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?

  1. Spine
  2. Shoulder
  3. Knee
  4. Ankle

51. What bone runs parallel to the fibula?

  1. Radius
  2. Femur
  3. Tibia
  4. Ulna

52. Which macronutrient is the most readily available for energy production?

  1. Fats
  2. Leucine
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Valine

53. Which of the following is the maximum arterial pressure occurring during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart?

  1. Systolic pressure
  2. Diastolic pressure
  3. Heart rate
  4. Pulse

54. After training, how long does it typically take for DOMS to set in?

  1. 6-11 hours
  2. 49-72 hours
  3. 12-48 hours
  4. 1-5 hours

55. Which of the following is the antagonist in the dumbbell curl?

  1. Triceps
  2. Deltoid
  3. Rhomboid
  4. Biceps

56. Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test?

  1. Actin
  2. Myosin
  3. Type II
  4. Type I

57. What is the daily water consumption recommendation?

  1. 1 Liter
  2. 4 Liters
  3. 3 Liters
  4. 2 Liters

58. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client’s lean body and total fat mass?

  1. Body fat calculation
  2. Girth measurements
  3. Scale weight
  4. Photographs

59. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs?

  1. Oxygen deficit
  2. Oxygen debt
  3. Aerobic fitness
  4. Anaerobic fitness

60. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?

  1. Moderate aerobic training
  2. Lying in the supine position
  3. Stretching before and after exercise
  4. Consuming additional calories

61. How often does an ISSA personal trainer have to renew their certification?

  1. Every year
  2. Every 2 years
  3. Every 3 years
  4. Every 4 years

62. Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from:

  1. 100
  2. 180
  3. 220
  4. 200

63. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the trainer discuss the client’s goals?

  1. Stage 4
  2. Stage 3
  3. Stage 1
  4. Stage 5

64. What does BMI stand for?

  1. Body metabolic index
  2. Body mass index
  3. Basal metabolic index
  4. Basal mass index

65. When working with a new client utilizing tempo training, which portion of the exercise is drawn out?

  1. Concentric
  2. Hold at the bottom
  3. Eccentric
  4. Hold at the top

66. What should a cool-down include?

  1. Static stretching
  2. Dynamic balance
  3. Dynamic stretching
  4. Contract-relax method

67. Which of the following represents a portion control strategy for women regarding carbohydrates?

  1. 4 cups a day
  2. 1 cupped handful
  3. 120 grams
  4. 3 servings

68. Which of the following is an example of an outcome goal?

  1. Lose 10 pounds
  2. Eat out only once a week
  3. Workout 3 days a week
  4. Go for a walk daily

69. When the spine develops an S- or C-shaped curve, this imbalance is referred to as which of the following?

  1. Lordosis
  2. Flatback
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Kyphosis

70. Which of the following is responsible for sensing excessive stretch to protect the muscle?

  1. Golgi tendon organ
  2. Muscle spindle
  3. Muscle fiber
  4. Sarcomere

71. How often should information be collected when working with a client?

  1. Only on the initial assessment
  2. Once a month
  3. Every time a trainer meets with them
  4. Only at reassessments

72. A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do?

  1. Refer to a dietician
  2. Offer a templated meal plan
  3. Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan
  4. Give a breakdown of macronutrients

73. Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client?

  1. 20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week
  2. 45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week
  3. 20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week
  4. 45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week

74. Which of the following is part of stage 1 of the drawing-in phase?

  1. Demonstrating sincerity
  2. Data collection
  3. Feeling the water
  4. Goal setting

75. Which type of contraction requires the muscles to “activate” but have no movement or change in muscle length?

  1. Concentric
  2. Isometric
  3. Eccentric
  4. Isotonic

76. Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training?

  1. Mesocycle
  2. Macrocycle
  3. Recovery cycle
  4. Microcycle

77. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following?

  1. Anaerobic exercise
  2. Aerobic exercise
  3. Energy metabolism
  4. ATP/CP pathway

78. Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition?

  1. A cheat meal once a week
  2. Meal prep routine
  3. Adequate sleep and recovery
  4. Repetitive weekends full of not following the plan

79. When performing CPR, what do procedures A, B, and C stand for?

  1. Abdominals, biceps, and chest
  2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
  3. Assess, blow out, circulation
  4. Airway, berating, cover

80. A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe?

  1. Individual differences
  2. Progressive overload
  3. SAID
  4. GAS